Cisco 300-208 Dumps Exam With 100% Rate

Examprepwell provides an exam profile for the Cisco 300-208 exam for the CCENT and CCNA certifications. Pearson IT Certification provides a variety of exam preparation tools to help our customers in their quest for certification. As part of our service to you, we have developed this 300-208 pdf Exam Profile series. Each profile is developed based on the testing experience of one of our trainers or authors. Of course you will not receive exact questions or answers, but you will get a real feel for the exam. Each profile describes question forms, trouble spots, hints for exam preparation, and recommendations for 300-208 dumps additional study resources. Find out here what you can expect to see on the exam, and how you can better prepare for it.

Latest Cisco 300-208 practice exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 1
In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Correct Answer: C

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 2
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
300-208 Dumps Exam
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path?
A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers.
B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area.
C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA.
D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 Dumps Exam
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 4
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: D

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
300-208 Dumps Exam
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1.
B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1.
C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router.
D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance.
E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6.
F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 6
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-ISC. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 7
Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
300-208 Dumps Exam
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4
only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made?
A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks.
B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering.
C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS.
D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family.
E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode.
Correct Answer: C

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 8
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 9
The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose?
A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack
B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
D. To indicate the status of the LSP
Correct Answer: A

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 10
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 11
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state
indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 12
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 13
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
Correct Answer: B

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 14
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
Correct Answer: C

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

Getting qualified is a guaranteed way to advance function in the IT market. Whether you perform for a business, a small company, medical care, government or any other place that utilizes IT experts, your best bet for a better job is to confirm your knowledge and abilities through a properly selected combination of 300-208 pdf certification. In order to pass the Cisco certification 300-208 dumps exam, generally, many people need to spend a lot of time and effort to review http://www.bestexampass.com/300-208.html

Best 200-105 Dumps, most professional 200-105 exam

To prepare for 200-105 exam training online, you do not need read a pile of reference books or take more time to join in related training courses, what you need to do is to make use of our Braindumps QA exam software, and you can pass the exam with ease. Our exam dumps can not only help you reduce your pressure from 200-105 dumps training online preparation, but also eliminate your worry about money waste. We guarantee to give you a full refund of the cost you purchased our dump if you fail 200-105 training online for the first time after you purchased and used our exam dumps. So please be rest assured the purchase of our dumps.

200-105 dumps exam

Latest 200-105 dumps questions and answers (10Q&As)

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 1
Which Aruba controllers are able to provide IEEE 802.3af POE? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000
Correct Answer: BCD

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 2
Which of the following controllers has an integrated single radio AP?
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 651
Correct Answer: D

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of campus APs supported by a 620 controller?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
Correct Answer: B

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 4
Which access point models support concurrent operations in both the ?b/g? band as well as the ?a? band? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP2
B. AP-120
C. AP-105
D. AP-125
E. AP-135
Correct Answer: CDE

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 5
Which of the following APs do not support dual radio operations? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP – 5
B. AP 125
C. AP 120
D. AP 124
Correct Answer: AC

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 6
Which of the following APs support remote AP operation?
A. AP 105
B. AP 125
C. RAP2
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 7
An Aruba based network has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master
controller. IDS is desired, so the administrator wants to install the “RFProtect license.”
On which controller should the license be installed?
A. master controller since it performs the IDS analysis
B. the local controllers since the APs terminate there
C. all of the controllers
D. this isn’t the correct license for this purpose
Correct Answer: C

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 8
What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller’s MAC address and the feature description
B. controller’s MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller’s Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller’s Serial Number and the certificate number
Correct Answer: D

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 9
What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?
A. Number of APs
B. Limit One per controller
C. Number of users
D. Number of local controllers
Correct Answer: A

200-105 Dumps QUESTION 10
Which of the following licenses are consumed by RAP?
A. AP license
B. PEF-NG license
C. PEF-V license
D. No license required
Correct Answer: A

Examprepwell 200-105 Actual Test information is proven. We can provide the questions based on extensive research and experience. Examprepwell has more experience in IT certification 200-105 pdf, including questions and answers. On the Internet, you can find a variety of training tools. Examprepwell 200-105 vce Actual Test and answers is the best training materials. We offer the most comprehensive verification questions and answers, you can also get a year of free updates.

Examprepwell 200-105 exam questions and answers in PDF are prepared by our expert, Moreover,they are based on the recommended syllabus covering all the 200-105 dumps objectives.You will find them to be very helpful and precise in the subject matter since all the 200-105 exam content is regularly updated and has been checked for accuracy by our team of Cisco expert professionals.

100% Free Cisco 300-070 Exam Questions With Answers

I’ve recently been on a 1 day training course covering the Cisco 300-070 exam questions– Application Delivery Fundamentals exam (blueprint here), and thought I would share my study notes. I’m taking the multiple choice exam this week, so hopefully the process of going through the study guide, and summarising everything will have given me enough knowledge to pass! After passing the Cisco 300-070 exam, I will be going on to study for the 300-070 exam, which I have been told requires quite a bit more effort. I plan to upload my study notes for the Cisco 300-070 exam dumps as well when they are complete. ese notes are mostly structured around the objectives in the blueprint document, and the content/exam is based on Cisco.Here’s a quick glossary of Cisco terminology, in case you’re missing some of it.

Latest Cisco 300-070 exam questions and answers (9Q&As)

300-070 exam Topic 1, Network Principles

Refer to the exhibit
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What
is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded
to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.

300-070 exam Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of
the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick
succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers
of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the
network
Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown
as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of
receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts
coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a
sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits
per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You
can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a single
lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e.
single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

1300-070 exam Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the extended ping command field on the left to its usage on the right.
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
Answer:
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
300-070 exam Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to
144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to
144.254.10.206.
Answer: A
Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as
144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in
hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

300-070 exam Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host
209.165.201.254.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for
reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not
need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do
with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have
a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.
Reference:http://www.cisco200-120.com/new-microsoft-70-487-pdf-70-487-exam-exam-video-training.html

300-070 exam Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its
interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type
codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically
through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given
time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs
and their payload type values can be found at the link below:

300-070 exam Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables
relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table),
which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken
up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

300-070 exam Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo
header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero
octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”
In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the
16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and
add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the
value of the UDP checksum field.
If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the
one’s complement (all 1s).

300-070 exam Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are
needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated
based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

The Cisco 300-070 exam is an entry path and a must exam towards 00-070 exam questions. By passing Cisco 300-070 and 300-070 exams one can be certified as Cisco Administrator. The Cisco 300-070 exam is easy to pass provided you read this book page to page and do have good understanding of basic networking concepts, basic terminologies and concepts. The second good source is the 101 vce University where you can access F5 virtual resources and practice what you learn. The training catalog offers following free courses which one can make use of to pass F5 Certification exams.I believe Examprepwell wrote this purely to empower Cisco 300-070 exam certification aspires, I really like the way how he penned down the concepts in a concise way, the flow keeps you engaged and some one with good reading skills can finish this book in a weeks time.For More Exam Information:http://www.bestexampass.com/300-070.html

Cisco 210-260 PDF With Valid Questions And questions

It is time to celebrate. But remember that now you have to maintain your certification. Salesforce require you to maintain 210-260 exam certifications. Every year there will be three releases(updates to the platform) for Cisco. Associated with each of these there will be maintenance exams. So every year you have to write thee maintenance exams. But these are online exams, based on release updates.

These are easy exams, which you can clear easily if you go through release notes. After your initial certification, two consecutive release exams are free for you. But after that you will have to pay $100 every year once for maintenance exams. So always remember to take maintenance exams on time, otherwise your certifications will become invalid. Also 210-260 dumps is a mandatory requirement before you can take Sales cloud consultant, Service cloud consultant and advanced administrator certifications. Make a good study plan and start preparing towards it.

Cisco 210-260 PDF

Latest Cisco 210-260 exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Inline editing updates the field when
A. The field is saved/updated
B. When the record is saved/updated
C. When the return key is pressed
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
If a company opts to use Custom Fiscal Years, they cannot use the standard forecasting option.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are not standard objects?
A. Opportunities
B. Solutions
C. Job Applicants
D. Accounts
E. Campaigns
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are part of the Service Cloud offering?
A. Opportunities
B. Knowledge
C. Entitlements
D. Campaigns
E. Quotes
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
If the company locale is set to US English, all users will have a default locale of US English and this cannot
be changed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
If your company’s fiscal year follows the Gregorian calendar, you must use Custom Fiscal Years.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
In order to enable multi-currency feature in Salesforce, you must
A. Contact Salesforce.com
B. Check the Enable Multi-currency checkbox in your Chatter profile
C. Operate your business in at least two different countries
D. You cannot enable this feature once you’ve implemented Salesforce.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which feature effectively allows you to “lock” the converted amount on closed opportunities?
A. Locale
B. Company Profile
C. Multi-currency
D. Advanced Currency Management
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
User interface settings are global settings and apply to all users of an org.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

For headstart, I am sharing with you my 210-260 exam dumps Objectives. I tried to answer most of them. For rest of the objective you can utilize HELP &TRAINING Window of your Cisco edition and do explore Tips & User Guides and cheat sheets provided. They really help you understand things from admin perspective. Our http://www.bestexampass.com/210-260.html website has a long history of providing 210-260 pdf free download. With many years’hard work, our passing rate of Prepexamwell’s 210-260 exam free download has achieved 100%. In order to make sure that the accuracy of 210-260 free download of Prepexamwell, our 210-260 dump download are continuing update.

Hottest 70-697 Practice Test, 100% Guarantee Pass

Microsoft has created new certifications that 70-697 practice test route pdf will help you work toward the coveted CCIE, as well as aid prospective employers in measuring skill levels. Before these new certifications were created, you took only one test and were then faced with the lab, which made it difficult to succeed. With these new certifications, there is an incremental path toward preparing for that almighty lab; Microsoft has opened doors that few were allowed through before. So, what are these new 70-697 practice testcertifications, and how do they help you get your CCIE? Some Microsoft documentation states that VRF is an acronym for Virtual Routing and Forwarding, while other Microsoft documentation states that VRF is an acronym for VPN Routing/Forwarding because of its common use in Virtual Private Networks VPN.

70-697 practice test

Latest Microsoft 70-697 exam questions and answers (8Q&As)

QUESTION 1
70-697 Practice Test
Refer to the exhibit
Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?
A. There is no default gateway.
B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.
C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.
D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router
(gateway of last resort).

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
70-697 Practice Test
A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?
A. incomplete ARP information
B. incorrect ACL
C. dynamic routing protocol failure
D. serial link congestion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency
command.
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface.
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry.
In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enabeled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef
No ARP Entry
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.

QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which
condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission
rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is
allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on
TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no
problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady
streams to lose packets simultaneously.

QUESTION 4
Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)
A. starvation
B. jitter
C. latency
D. windowing
E. lower throughput
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the
behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some
UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus
never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences
congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/
UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput.
TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video
and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the
most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of
this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions.

QUESTION 5
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible
coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.
Benefits:
Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks
Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other
Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.
Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?
A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and
IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the old protocol, thus providing connectivity
between users of the new protocol. Tunneling has two disadvantages, as discussed in RFC 6144:
Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability.
Reference:

QUESTION 7
A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. FIB
C. ARP cache
D. MAC address table
E. Cisco Express Forwarding table
F. topology table
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:
Command Purpose
clear ip route {* |
Clears one or more routes from both the
{route |
unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The
prefix/length}[next-hop route options are as follows:
interface]}
· *–All routes.
[vrf vrf-name]
Example:
· route–An individual IP route.
switch(config)# clear ip
· prefix/length–Any IP prefix.
route
10.2.2.2
· next-hop–The next-hop address
· interface–The interface to reach the
next-hop address.
The vrf-name can be any case-sensitive, alphanumeric string up to 32 characters.
Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?
A. fast switching
B. process switching
C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching
D. cut-through packet switching
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses
are stored in the high-speed cache to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is enabled. Fast switching is
enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching.
To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the “show ip cache” EXEC command.
Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.
B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.
C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.
D. Set TCP options to “enabled” on the remote host.
E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP Extensions for High Performance . A larger window size is recommended to improve TCP performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support. The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to 32 bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14.Typical applications use a scale factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs. The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp windowsize command in global configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host must also support this feature and its window size must be increased. Reference:

When designing a new network or analyzing an existing network, the ability to determine how traffic flows through that network is a necessary skill. Traffic flow is determined both by the traffic type (unicast, multicast, broadcast, or anycast) and the network architecture type (point-to-point, broadcast, and nonbroadcast multiaccess). We are offering learning material for 70-697 Implementing IP Routing exam by considering the real Microsoft 70-697 exam criteria. Our highly educated experts are devoting their duties to prepare most relevant 70-697 exam questions for you. Try our free demo version which indicates real Microsoft 70-697 dumps including exam time, types of questions and other necessary details.

Our experts have made two types of learning material according to the need of 70-697 practice test Implementing Microsoft IP Routing exam applicants. We are providing PDF format solved questions and answers and Practice test software 70-697 vce Implementing Microsoft IP Routing exam. We provide free updates for 90 days from the date of purchasing. Examprepwell also provides free technical support and live chat 24/7 for your facility. In order to keep our customers date secure, we uses unbreakable security protocols by McAfee and SSL 64-Bit. We provide special discount and promotions for regular customers so keep visiting the site: http://www.bestexampass.com/70-697.html

Microsoft 70-347 Exam Dumps Materials

Along with talking about Microsoft 70-347 exam dumps materials and coming of the information age, the excellent 200-125 exam skills are the primary criterion for selecting talent of enterprises. Microsoft 70-347 certification exam gives an IT exams credential that is recognized in the IT industry. Microsoft 70-347 exam are designed for the Microsoft 70-347 exam dumps students, so that they can get the certification in the field of Microsoft 70-347 dumps that can help them find better jobs in the market. Most of the Microsoft 70-347 pdf are the designations that are earned by any person for the sake of assuring qualification for performing any kind of job or tasks.

70-347 exam dumps materials

Latest Microsoft 70-347 practice exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 1
Use this process definition in the exhibit to answer the following question.
If the exception handler’s after execute property is set to rethrow and ConvertPriceListToPriceQuoteXML throws an exception, what happens?
A. The exception handler is executed, all the remaining nodes in the group are executed and the process throws a generic unchecked exception.
B. The exception handler is executed, all the remaining nodes in the group are executed and the process throws a checked exception.
C. The exception handler is executed, all the remaining nodes in the group are executed and the exception is re-thrown, bubbling up to a global exception handler.
D. The exception handler is skipped, all the remaining nodes in the group are executed and the exception is re-thrown, bubbling up to a global exception handler.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 2
Exhibit
A Web service offers tax advice. The Web service operation takes in a federal tax form (in XML format)
and outputs a document that reports any errors and suggests tips for saving money. This operation takes a
long time to execute, and a relatively heavily load is expected; therefore the output document is delivered
as an asynchronous callback.
Which operation is best for receiving the federal tax form?
A. op1
B. op2
C. op3
D. op4
E. op5
Correct Answer: A

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 3
In WebLogic Workshop, which of these has the broadest scope?
A. Project
B. Library
C. Module
D. Process
E. Application
Correct Answer: E

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 4
In WebLogic Workshop, how does a developer create a Java Process Definition (JPD) source file within an application?
A. By using the Process Control
B. By creating a Process Project
C. By creating a Process Module
D. By selecting New > Process File from the processes folder
E. B or D
Correct Answer: B

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 5
In WebLogic Workshop, which option can assist a developer in reducing the time and resources required for Schema project builds?
A. Disabling the auto-build feature
B. Creating multiple Schema projects
C. Disabling the use of XMLBeans on the Schema Project Properties menu
D. A and B
E. A and C
Correct Answer: D

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 6
Consider this code snippet:
try {MBeanHomehome = getMBeanHome(url, username, password); ApplicationRuntimeMBeanapp = getApplicationRuntimeMBean(home, appName); WebAppComponentRuntimeMBeanwebapp = getWebAppComponentRuntimeMBean(app,ctxRoot); ServletRuntimeMBeanservlet = getServletRuntimeMBean(webapp,servletName); System.out.println (“Invocation count is ” +servlet.getInvocationTotalCount());} catch (Exception e) {
System.out.println(“Exception caught: ” + e);}}
What information does the code provide?
A. Runtime information about all Servlet Sessions
B. Runtime invocation totals for a Servlet
C. Runtime information for all Servlets on a specific server
D. Configuration information defined in the deployment descriptors of all Servlets
E. Runtime information for all Servlets that have been invoked at least once
Correct Answer: B

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 7
To deploy a WebLogic Integration application on a production server, you must create some resources manually. Which file lists these resources?
A. application.xml
B. wli-process.xml
C. wlw-manifest.xml
D. weblogic-application.xml
E. A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: C

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 8
In the WebLogic Administration Console, applications can be deployed to which targets?
A. Servers and Machines
B. Servers and Clusters
C. Machines and Clusters
D. Servers, Machines, and Clusters
E. Servers, Machines, Clusters, and Realms
Correct Answer: B

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 9
Consider this documentation comment and code fragment:
/*** Analyzes text for possible copyright violations **
@param text text to be analyzed
*/public void processText(String text) { //code here } Which statement is true?
A.This is a valid documentation comment.
B.A @method tag is required for this to be a valid documentation comment.
C.An @author tag is required for this to be a valid documentation comment.
D.An @exception tag is required for this to be a valid documentation comment.
E.The asterisk (*) usage is malformed and in violation of documentation comment requirements.
Correct Answer: A

70-347 exam dumps materials QUESTION 10
To mark an operation with a “start” conversation phase, a Web service developer can use the property editor. What is another way to accomplish this?
A. Directly editing the Java comments in the source file
B. Dragging and dropping the Start Conversation Phase icon from the palette onto the operation
C. Right-clicking the operation in Design View and selecting the conversation phase from the menu
D. Double-clicking the operation in Design View and selecting the conversation phase from the pop-up
E. There is no other way to accomplish this.
Correct Answer: A

Microsoft 70-347 exam can act as a passport to a well-rewarded job, smooth the path to promotion or higher earnings. Here, Microsoft 70-347 exam is a very important exam to help you get better progress and to test your IT skills. However, not all of these Microsoft 70-347 exam dumps certifications are the acknowledgment of the achievement or education or any kind of agency that can be appointed to safeguard the public interest of the people interested in Microsoft exam. This is the reason why they are advised to go for the Microsoft 70-347 dumps pdf and vce online that can help them in better preparation of their Examprepwell Microsoft 70-347 questions.

Microsoft 70-347 exam dumps question and answers have played a very important role in this field as the Microsoft 70-347 exam have become a compulsion here. This is why so many of the IT students are seen to be preparing for their Microsoft 70-347 vce pdf Questions and vce test engine software from http://www.bestexampass.com/70-347.html that they think to offer their best IT exam products for passing 200-125 exam.

70-483 Microsoft Practice Test Questions

The worldwide communication landscape is constantly changing. Just a few years ago, hardly anyone knew what a smartphone was and terms like Telepresence were reserved for sci-fi movies. Now, as the evolution of Voice over IP continues, Microsoft has transformed from a voice-centric 70-483 certification focus to one of Collaboration. Examprepwell now supports a more vast feature set, software, hardware,70-483 microsoft practice test questions, and knowledge base necessary to implement and maintain the system. Welcome to the real world! The first bit of interesting news is that there are no prerequisites! Yep, you read that right. You do not have to have a Microsoft in Routing and Switching to earn your Microsoft in Collaboration.

Latest 70-483 practice exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: AC

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 3
70-483 microsoft practice test questions
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is
failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing. From the router configuration information provided,
why is this call failing?
A. The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B. the digit string prefix is missing
C. The destination pattern is incorrect
D. digit stripping needs to be performed
Correct Answer: C

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 5
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
70-483 microsoft practice test questions
International calls are also failing. Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls
failing?
A. Prefix should be 00
B. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C. The port should be 0/0/0:12
D. The destination pattern is missing a “0”
Correct Answer: A

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these
calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item
allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for
this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication
Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Correct Answer: C

70-483 microsoft practice test questions QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is
connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

Candidates can buy study guides online for preparing the exam. By getting this Implementing study guide you will get Microsoft 70-483 practice test questions. It is the perfect content which is designed by the expert people as per the 210-060 test engine. In this way a learner can be able to take custom help with the help of the 70-483 practice test. It is hard to master because Microsoft Collaboration is not as simple as paper writing but with the help of the Microsoft 70-483 microsoft practice test questions and answers, candidates can do the task easily. It needs your complete concentration and great research is required to make your Implementing Microsoft preparation perfect. If you are looking for the services of professional http://www.bestexampass.com/70-483.html which can assist you in this regard then you must take online help. Here you can avail Microsoft 70-483 vce real exam questions.

Latest And Most Accurate 70-533 Exam Questions

Every person working closely with 70-533 exam, be it a DBA, a database developer or a BI developer, should know at least the basics of 70-533. So these 70-533 exam questions shouldn’t be too hard for most people. To prepare myself, I read the 70-533 exam by Learningpdf to learn more about the windowing functions introduced in SQL Server 2012. I can absolutely recommend Learningpdf.com to everyone to get up to speed with Windowing Functions in SQL Server. Learningpdf really does a great job by explaining all the concepts very clearly and uses a lot of practical examples. A must-read. This 70-533 exam questions measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the 70-533 exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

70-533 exam questions

Latest 70-533 dumps exam questions and answers (Q&As)

QUESTION 8
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that
contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
[Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL
GO
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
[Id] hierarchyid,
[Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL
GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable
D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
[Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE, [Document] VARBINARY(MAX)
FILESTREAM NULL
GO
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 10
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named OrderDetail. You
discover that the NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID non-clustered index is fragmented. You need to reduce
fragmentation.
You need to achieve this goal without taking the index offline. Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. CREATE INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID WITH DROP EXISTING
B. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REORGANIZE
C. ALTER INDEX ALL ON OrderDetail REBUILD
D. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REBUILD
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database is used by two web applications that
access a table named Products You want to create an object that will prevent the applications from accessing the table directly while still providing access to the required data.
You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
Future modifications to the table definition will not affect the applications’ ability to access data.
The new object can accommodate data retrieval and data modification.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of changes to the existing applications.
What should you create for each application?
A. views
B. table partitions
C. table-valued functions
D. stored procedures
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create a batch process that meets the following requirements:
Returns a result set based on supplied parameters.
Enables the returned result set to perform a join with a table.
Which object should you use?
A. Inline user-defined function
B. Stored procedure
C. Table-valued user-defined function
D. Scalar user-defined function
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create and call a stored procedure that meets the following requirements:
Accepts a single input parameter for CustomerID.
Returns a single integer to the calling application.
Which Transact-SQL statement or statements should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating @Customer INT, @CustomerRatIng INT OUTPUT
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON SELECT @CustomerRating = CustomerOrders/CustomerValue FROM
Customers WHERE CustomerID = @CustomerID
RETURN
GO
B. EXECUTE dbo.GetCustomerRatIng 1745
C. DECLARE @customerRatingBycustomer INT
DECLARE @Result INT
EXECUTE @Result = dbo.GetCustomerRating
, @CustomerRatingSyCustomer
D. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating @CustomerID INT, @CustomerRating INT OUTPUT
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT @Result = CustomerOrders/CustomerValue
FROM Customers WHERE CustomerID = @CustomeriD
RETURN @Result
GO
E. DECLARE @CustomerRatIngByCustcmer INT
EXECUTE dbo.GetCustomerRating @CustomerID = 1745,
@CustomerRating = @CustomerRatingByCustomer OUTPUT
F. CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.GetCustomerRating
@CustomerID INT
AS
DECLARE @Result INT
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT @Result = CustomerOrders/CustomerVaLue
FROM Customers
WHERE Customer= = @CustomerID
RETURNS @Result
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint should you use?
A. HOLDLOCK
B. ROWLOCK
C. XLOCK
D. UPDLOCK
E. TABLOCK
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 15
You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains two tables named SalesOrderHeader and
SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows table scans
where the estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader by using an unexpected
index on SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query.
B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader.
C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query.
D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 16
Your database contains a table named Purchases. The table includes a DATETIME column named
PurchaseTime that stores the date and time each purchase is made. There is a non- clustered index on
the PurchaseTime column.
The business team wants a report that displays the total number of purchases made on the current day.
You need to write a query that will return the correct results in the most efficient manner.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
B. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime = GETDATE()
C. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE CONVERT(VARCHAR, PurchaseTime, 112) = CONVERT(VARCHAR, GETDATE(), 112)
D. SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Purchases
WHERE PurchaseTime >= CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())
AND PurchaseTime < DATEADD(DAY, 1, CONVERT(DATE, GETDATE())) Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Two answers will return the correct results (the “WHERE CONVERT…” and “WHERE...AND...” answers).The correct answer for Microsoft would be the answer that is most “efficient”. Anybody have a clue as towhich is most efficient? In the execution plan, the one that I’ve selected as the correct answer is the query with the shortest duration. Also, the query answer with “WHERE CONVERT” threw warnings in the execution plan,something about affecting Cardinality Estimate and SeekPlan. Now will I go for more Certs? You need to be confident, our own solutions are certainly not individuals well known Microsoft 70-533 exam labs. I think just one is sufficient to demonstrate your commitment to the IT trade and that you are able to apply yourself and complete a fairly time-consuming and tedious task. It’s also been several years since I last took a ‘graded exam’ and it help me re-focus and tune my brain to get back in that mode. Now I can apply that same mindset to work as I tackle actual practical needs when reading requirements, documentation then putting it into action. Our nation confidence themselves, select learningpdf 70-533 dumps and point out “no” to all or any Microsoft 70-533 eliminate. I’ll likely just pick up a few books and practice on some test systems, but if a useful Exam/Cert presents itself I may consider getting back in the mode. Lots of people selected genuine test being their shortcut and passed their assessments, but exactly what they will ignore is that will 70-533 exam can certainly only help these people acquire certified with out gaining their information.

Download The Best 300-080 Exam Questions PDF

The 300-080 exam questions and answers in .pdf that we have, is the most reliable guide for The Open Group TOGAF 9 Certified certification exams from our Selftest Engine. It is the most reliable 300-080 source of The Open Group success and a large number of successful candidates have shown a lot of faith in our 300-080 Selftest Engine question and answers in .pdf. Why, you might wonder? Because we offer the best Cisco Certified guidelines plus a money-back guarantee if you do not get the desired results!

300-080 exam questions pdf

Latest 300-080 dumps exam questions and answers (8Q&As)

QUESTION 7
Which of the following best describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. It is a detailed data model that can be tailored to specific industries
B. It is an example of a Common Systems Architecture
C. It is a fundamental architecture upon which more specific architectures can be based
D. It is a model of application components and application services software, including brokering
applications
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?
A. Part I, the Enterprise Continuum, describes a model for structuring a virtual repository
B. Part II, the Architecture Development Method, describes the definitions of terms used in TOGAF, and
the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III, Tools and Support, describes a collection of guidelines and techniques used in the other parts
of TOGAF
D. Part VI, TOGAF Reference Models, includes a model for release management of the TOGAF
specification
E. Part VII, the Architecture Capability Framework, describes processes and skills to establish an
enterprise function
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which of the following describes the Architecture Vision document?
A. A description of individual change increments showing progression from the baseline to target
architecture
B. A detailed schedule for implementation of the target architecture
C. A high level description of the baseline and target architectures
D. A joint agreement between the development team and sponsor on the deliverables and quality of an
architecture
E. A set of rules and guidelines to support fulfilling the mission of the organization
Correct Answer: C
OG0-093 Exam

QUESTION 10
What document is sent from the sponsoring organization to the architecture organization to trigger the start
of an ADM cycle?
A. Architecture Contract
B. Architecture Definition Document
C. Architecture Vision
D. Request for Architecture Work
E. Statement of Architecture Work
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
According to TOGAF, which of the following best describes Architecture Governance?
A. A categorization mechanism for architecture and solution artifacts
B. A framework for operational and change activity
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of a set of building blocks
D. The lifecycle management of information and related technology used by an organization
E. The practice by which enterprise architectures are controlled at an enterprise-wide level
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which component within the Architecture Repository holds best practice or template materials that can be
used to construct architectures?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all the following are responsibilities of an Architecture
Board, except .
A. Allocating resources for architecture projects
B. Decision making for changes in the architecture
C. Enforcing Architecture Compliance
D. Improving the maturity of the organization’s architecture discipline
E. Production of governance materials
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
According to TOGAF, which of the following best describes the purpose of a Compliance Assessment?
A. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
B. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
C. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
D. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture
Correct Answer: B

To prepare for 300-080 exam, you do not need read a pile of reference books or take more time to join in related training courses, what you need to do is to make use of our Examprepwell exam software, and you can pass the exam with ease. Our exam dumps can not only help you reduce your pressure from 300-080 exam questions pdf, but also eliminate your worry about money waste. We guarantee to give you a full refund of the cost you purchased our dump if you fail 300-080 exam for the first time after you purchased and used our exam dumps. So please be rest assured the purchase of our dumps.

Most Accurate 200-125 Test Exam PDF

“Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) “, also known as 200-125 exam, is a Cisco Certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Examprepwell has assembled to take you through 234 Q&As to your 200-125 Exam preparation. In the Examprepwell 200-125 test exam pdf, you will cover every field and category in Cisco CCNP Wireless helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

Get up to-date 200-125 Questions & Answers for Definite success in first attempt without being at risk to fail. Free Trial is ready for download! Examprepwell 200-125 dumps exam preparation for ultimate success is now just a click away from you because you can purchase the professionally prepared and recognized practice test software with money back guarantee. The software is to ease you for preparing the exam and it aims to turn your efforts into success. Free demo, 24/7 customer support and MacAfee Secure payment method!

200-125 test exam pdf

Latest 200-125 dumps exam questions and answers (7Q&As)

QUESTION 11
What is the best method to verify AP parameters that are seen from a wireless client?
A. WCS debug commands
B. ACS log files
C. WCS show commands
D. AP debug commands
E. packet analyzers
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Employees are allowed to start bringing their own wireless devices to work for use on the 802.11a/b/g/n
WLAN when using their existing credentials. However, they are experiencing issues. Which two items are
the most probable cause of these issues? (Choose two.)
A. incorrect IP address
B. supplicant or driver
C. incorrect user name
D. wrong wireless band
E. application issues
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the
two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? (Choose
two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which two options are supported when deploying wireless NAC out-of-band implementations? (Choose
two.)
A. Cisco NAS in virtual gateway mode
B. WLANs with allow AAA override enabled
C. Cisco NAC Guest Server integration with the Cisco NAM
D. dynamic VLAN mappings on the Cisco NAS, which is based on the returned RADIUS attributes from
the Cisco Secure ACS
E. autonomous APs
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
When deploying wireless Cisco NAC OOB operations, which appliance performs VLAN mappings to map
the quarantine VLANs to the access VLANs?
A. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
B. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
C. Cisco NAC Guest Server
D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
E. the Layer 3 switch that connects the Cisco WLC to the Cisco NAC appliances
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Wireless NAC single sign-on uses which type of RADIUS records to notify the Cisco NAC Appliance
Manager about the authenticated wireless clients?
A. accounting records
B. authentication records
C. authentication and accounting records
D. preauthentication records
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
configuration is true?
A. Wireless client traffic that is outbound on VLAN 176 will be switched to the trusted interface on the
Cisco NAC Appliance Server.
B. Wireless client traffic that is outbound on VLAN 175 will be switched to the trusted interface on the
Cisco NAC Appliance Server.
C. 10.10.175.1 is the IP address of the trusted interface on the Cisco NAC Appliance Server.
D. 10.10.175.1 is the IP address of the untrusted interface on the Cisco NAC Appliance Server.
E. VLAN 175 is the access VLAN.
F. VLAN 176 traffic from the client will bypass the Cisco NAC Appliance Server.
Correct Answer: E

In addition, some companies are offering training programs to you at convincingly cheap prices and also help you to get the Cisco 200-125 tests with no difficulties. You can also be able to make use of the audio exam, video exam and brain dumps for passing and excelling in the Cisco (Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0) exam because this gives wonderful results. The self paced training kits give way for training practice Cisco (Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0) exam and also makes it achievable for you to get the CCNP Wireless exam in an ideal manner.

The Cisco 200-125 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) exam is a really good way for you to be able to familiarize yourself with the Examprepwell 200-125 dumps questions as they appear in the actual 200-125 exam besides being a very way for you to be able to learn how to answer the examiner’s questions in a pleasing manner. The Pass4itsure 200-125 CCNP Wireless certification exam is furthermore a great way to relieve stress before you have to give the actual Cisco 200-125 exam.