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EX200 Dumps PDF

Latest EX200 dumps pdf questions and answers (10Q&As)

11. Which formula retrieves the data for January sales in Smart View?
A. =HsGetCell(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
B. =HsGetValue(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
C. =HsGetCell(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
D. =HsGetValue(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
EX200 dumps Answer: B

12. To use Multiple data sources in Financial Reporting, the data sources:
A. Need to be defined on separate reports inside a book.
B. Can be on the same page, but segregated by grid.
C. Can be assigned by Row and Column.
D. Can be assigned to specific cells.
Answer: C

13. In Smart View, Excel formulas that you add to data cells are automatically preserved in which of these
actions? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Using the Keep Only or Remove Only function.
B. Zooming in or zooming out.
C. Pivoting data from a row to a column.
D. Refreshing the Ad Hoc grid.
EX200 pdf Answer: ABD

14. Which two statements are true about a User Point of View in Hyperion Analyzer Reports? (CHOOSE
TWO)
A. A User Point of View cannot be deleted.
B. A User Point of View can be shared with other users.
C. Users can only superimpose a Point of View on reports using the same database connection
D. The User Point of View checkbox in Cube Navigator enables and disables the Point of View for the
database query.
EX200 pdf Answer: CD

15. System Journal Reports require to be generated and saved. (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Journal Filters
B. a report description
C. a Report Style Sheet
D. the columns that have been defined
Answer: CD

16. SCENARIO: User A is created in Hyperion Reports and is assigned the role of Viewer. User A is then
assigned to Group B which has the roles of Security Administrator and System Administrator. Which
role(s) does User A have in Hyperion Reports?
A. Viewer only
B. Designer and Viewer only
C. System Administrator and Security Administrator only
D. System Administrator, Security Administrator, Designer, and Viewer
EX200 exam Answer: D

17. An HFM user is creating a journal report on the web. Which three dimensions from the POV are
available on the Properties panel to select members? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
Answer: ACE

18. Which steps are needed to change a Hyperion Analyzer Spreadsheet to a Chart?
A. Tool Bar > Charts
B. Tool Bar > Tools > Charts
C. Tool Bar > Display > Charts
D. Tool Bar > Display > Pinboard
Answer: C

19. Which three functions are available in the Manage Servers and Applications window? (CHOOSE
THREE)
A. Logout Users
B. System Messages
C. Enable Connections
D. Disable Connections
EX200 pdf Answer: ACD

20. Which functionality is NOT available when opening a data form in Smart View?
A. Calculating data
B. Add cell text
C. Add Member
D. Add formulas
Answer: C

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400-101 PDF

Latest 400-101 PDF questions and answers (14Q&As)

QUESTION 51
Which of the following scheduling options can you select in transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) to
define the start condition of a background job in an SAP system based on AS ABAP? (Choose three)
A. When a specified alert condition is met (Alert)
B. At a particular time (Date / Time)
C. When a specified job finished (After job)
D. When a particular event occurs (After event)
E. Each time a specific periodic job finished (After periodic job)
400-101 exam Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 52
Which of the following does not use SAP NetWeaver?
A. SAP ERP
B. SAP Business All-In-One
C. SAP CRM
D. SAP Business One
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 53
You have established a backup strategy using complete offline backups.
In addition to all data files, which files are saved by BRBACKUP? (Choose two)
A. Oracle executable files
B. Online redo log files
C. The control file
D. SQL*Net configuration files
E. Offline redo log files
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 54
Which AS ABAP release for software component “SAP BASIS” is used for SAP ECC 6.05?
A. 7.20
B. 7.02
C. 7.01
D. 7.10
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 55
You are running a system landscape of AS Java-based SAP systems. You want to use the enhanced
Change and Transport System (CTS) to transport non-ABAP objects into these systems.
Which prerequisites are necessary to perform this task? (Choose two)
A. The Software Deployment Manager (SDM) of the Transport Domain Controller must be configured for deployment in AS Java-based runtime systems.
B. Client-dependent transport routes must exist for all SAP systems in your transport domain.
C. The transport landscape for AS Java-based SAP systems must be maintained in transaction STMS in the Transport Domain Controller.
D. The AS Java-based SAP systems and the Transport Domain Controller must have the same SAP release level.
E. An RFC destination to the CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured on the AS ABAP-based Transport Domain Controller.
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 56
Which of the following statements are true with regard to SAP online help for an AS ABAP-based SAP
system? (Choose three)
A. When installing the online documentation, you have the option to choose between Standard HTML (PlainHtml) and Compiled HTML (HtmlHelp).
B. The online documentation can be installed in the database of the SAP system.
C. The online documentation can be installed on a file or Web server.
D. The online documentation is installed with all available languages by default.
E. Access to the online documentation can be configured with transaction SR13 (Administration:
Display of the SAP Library).
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 57
You are running a landscape of AS ABAP-based SAP systems. What can be copied using client copy
tools? (Choose three)
A. Application data without client-specific Customizing
B. User master records
C. Customer-specific repository objects
D. Cross-client Customizing for remote client copy
E. Client-specific Customizing without application data
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 58
Which of the following is an attribute of an output device definition in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The local Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
B. A specific spool work process
C. Logon client
D. Either a logical or a physical spool server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 59
Which of the following are consequences of a work process reservation for class “A” jobs? (Choose two)
A. A dedicated background work process is reserved for class “A” jobs.
B. Class “A” jobs are started with a higher probability at their planned start time.
C. Class “B” and class “C” jobs can encounter delays.
D. When all background work processes of an SAP system are reserved for class “A” jobs, jobs of classes “B” and “C” will be automatically promoted to class “A”.
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 60
How can you determine the current store location for TemSe spool objects?
A. Check the table space PSAPSPOOL in the database.
B. Check the environment variable DIR_SAPSPOOL.
C. Check the value of the system parameter rspo/store_location.
D. Check the value of the SAP Spooler Vault parameter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 61
Which of the following prerequisites must be fulfilled to establish BAPI communication between SAP
systems in an SAP landscape?
A. RFC connections must be defined.
B. A BAPI layer in the protocol stack of the operating system must be available.
C. The BAPI flag of the RFC layer must be activated.
D. A central LDAP directory server must be available.
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 62
You want to apply ABAP Support Packages using transaction SPAM (Support Package Manager).
What do you need to consider? (Choose two)
A. Individual Support Packages exist for different ABAP software components.
B. It is sufficient to apply only the latest Support Package available per ABAP software component.
C. Before you apply Support Packages, it may be necessary to apply a SPAM/SAINT update.
D. You must apply the Support Packages for each client individually.
E. While applying SAP_BASIS Support Packages, a system restart is necessary due to the kernel update.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 63
Which of the following statements regarding the architecture of SAP NetWeaver AS are correct? (Choose two)
A. The central services instance of the AS Java is required only for an AS Java installation, and not for an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) installation.
B. SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems use either AS ABAP, AS Java, or AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack).
C. All SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems can be installed as AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) systems.
D. With AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack), the AS Java and AS ABAP use different database schemas.
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 64
Which of the following activities can be carried out using the Web administration interface of the SAP Web
Dispatcher?
A. Upgrade the SAP Web Dispatcher.
B. Connect the SAP Web Dispatcher to a directory server.
C. Install the SAP Web Dispatcher.
D. Display parameter settings for the SAP Web Dispatcher.
Correct Answer: D

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300-080 Exam Dumps

Latest Cisco 300-080 exam dumps questions and answers (10Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
300-080 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
300-080 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
300-080 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the most efficient development tool to use for rapid deployment of formatted reports without requiring coding?
A. Essbase Objects application
B. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files
C. Essbase Web Gateway deployed over their Intranet
D. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files and Extended Spreadsheet Macros
300-080 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Given the Input data and the Outline in the exhibits, if Product and Market are sparse, which is an input level data block?
A. East->Root Beer
B. New York->Colas
C. New York->Diet Cola
D. New York->Root Beer
Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Given that Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, which file(s) would be restructured if a new member were added to the Product dimension?
A. none
B. data files only
C. index files only
D. both index and data files
210-060 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Given the Outline in the exhibit, if Incremental Restructuring is enabled and Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, what is the incremental restructuring implication if the Product dimension is moved after the Market dimension?
A. none
B. restructure deferred
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures data files only
D. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures index files only
E. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files
300-080 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION 11
If the average block density is between 10% and 90% and there are few consecutive repeating values or zeros, which data compression type is recommended?
A. RLE
B. Bit-Map
C. No Compression
300-080 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When would disabling data compression be recommended?
A. when the average block density is very low (<3%). B. when the average block density is very high (>95%) and few consecutive repeating values exist.
C. when the database contains many consecutive zero values or other consecutive repeating values.
Answer: B

QUESTION 13
In the Outline in the exhibit, Year and Measures are dense dimensions. Data is loaded for every Month, Measure, Market and Scenario. After a CALC ALL is run, how many blocks are there?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
300-080 exam Answer: A

QUESTION 14
During calculation, what is the calculator cache used for?
A. for storing blocks
B. for tracking index page usage
C. for storing dynamically calculated values
D. for tracking calculation progress through the blocks
Answer: D

QUESTION 15
The BeginArchive and EndArchive commands are used for which procedure?
A. Exporting only a partial area of a database.
B. Backing up Essbase files while Essbase is still running.
C. Backing up Essbase files after Essbase has been shut down.
D. Shutting down Essbase and making a complete backup of the current database.
300-080 dumps Answer: B

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Cisco 300-075 Exam

Latest Cisco 300-075 exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

QUESTION 26
Which two statements comparing ECC and RSA are true? (Choose two.)
A. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size.
B. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA.
C. Key generation in ECC is slower and less CPU intensive.
D. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size.
E. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU intensive.
Correct Answer: AE
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 27
An administrator desires that when work laptops are not connected to the corporate network, they should automatically initiate an AnyConnect VPN tunnel back to headquarters. Where does the administrator configure this?
A. Via the svc trusted-network command under the group-policy sub-configuration mode on the ASA
B. Under the andquot;Automatic VPN Policyandquot; section inside the Anyconnect Profile Editor within ASDM
C. Under the TNDPolicy XML section within the Local Preferences file on the client computer
D. Via the svc trusted-network command under the global webvpn sub-configuration mode on the ASA
Correct Answer: C
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 28
Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 29
Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP
B. VNC
C. CIFS
D. RDP
E. HTTPS
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 30
Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN?
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 31
When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating
the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for?
A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data.
B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the
server public key.
C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key.
D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server.
Correct Answer: D
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 32
Which two changes must be made to migrate from DMVPN Phase 2 to Phase 3 when EIGRP is configured? (Choose two )
A. Disable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
B. Enable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
C. Acid NHRP shortcuts on the hub.
D. Add NHRP redirects on the hub.
E. Add NHRP redirects on the spoke.
Correct Answer: BD
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 33
When an IPsec SVTI is configured, which technology processes traffic forwarding for encryption?
A. ACL
B. IP routing
C. RRI
D. front door VPN routing and forwarding
Correct Answer: B
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 34
Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.)
A. the hashing algorithm
B. the authentication method
C. the lifetime
D. the session key
E. the transform-set
F. the peer
Correct Answer: ABC
300-075 Exam

QUESTION 35
Authorization of a clientless SSL VPN defines the actions that a user may perform within a clientless SSL VPN session.
Which statement is correct concerning the SSL VPN authorization process?
A. Remote clients can be authorized by applying a dynamic access policy, which is configured on an external AAA server.
B. Remote clients can be authorized externally by applying group parameters from an external database.
C. Remote client authorization is supported by RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols.
D. To configure external authorization, you must configure the Cisco ASA for cut-through proxy.
Correct Answer: B
300-075 Exam

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Cisco 300-320 Study Guide

Latest 300-320 study guide questions and answers (15Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include? Accurate
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

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200-105 Practice Test

Latest 200-105 practice test questions and answers (10Q&As)

200-105 practice test QUESTION 31
Users of an application are reporting performance issues. The following performance values are observed in the vSphere Web Client:
Host CPU utilization is 90%
Virtual Machine memory utilization is consistently greater than 90%
CPU Ready values are higher than 20%
What could be the cause of the application performance issue?
A. The host is lacking the CPU resources required to meet the demand.
B. The host is lacking the memory resources required to meet the demand.
C. The virtual machine is lacking the CPU resources required to meet the demand.
D. The virtual machine is lacking the memory resources required to meet the demand.
Correct Answer: A

200-105 practice test QUESTION 32
An administrator receives a report that no real time statistics are available for a virtual machine in the vCenter Server inventory.
Which two statements indicate likely causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine is powered off.
B. The host containing the virtual machine is disconnected from vCenter Server.
C. There is insufficient real time data to display the information.
D. The vCenter Server service is not running.
Correct Answer: AB

200-105 practice test QUESTION 33
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets two conditions:
high virtual CPU
high active memory consumption
The alarm is malfunctioning and triggering when either condition is met instead of both.
What can be done to correct the issue?
A. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
B. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
C. Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory.
D. Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm.
Correct Answer: A

200-105 practice test QUESTION 34
Which two are true about the Risk badge in vRealize Operations? (Choose two.)
A. The Risk badge indicates potential future problems that may degrade the performance of the system.
B. Risks may require attention in the near future.
C. The Risk badge indicates problems that are degrading performance of the system.
D. Risks require attention now to correct system performance problems.
Correct Answer: AB

200-105 practice test QUESTION 35
Which two badges are major badges in vRealize Operations? (Choose two.)
A. Risk
B. Efficency
C. Workload
D. Faults
Correct Answer: AB

200-105 practice test QUESTION 36
A user wants to monitor a business-critical virtual machine to ensure that it doesn’t run out of resources.
What metric could be monitored in vRealize Operations to address this concern?
A. Time Remaining badge
B. Compliance badge
C. Reclaimable Waste badge
D. Density badge
Correct Answer: A

200-105 practice test QUESTION 37
Refer to the Exhibit.
200-105 Practice Test
An administrator is configuring an ESXi 6.x host to use multiple NICs to resolve a management network redundancy error. After configuring a second NIC, the
server is not able to communicate when the primary connection is taken down. The administrator analyzes the Exhibit shown here.
Based on the exhibit, what is the likely cause of the issue?
A. vmnic4 is not attached to a vSwitch.
B. vmnic2 is not connected to a physical switch.
C. E1000 is the incorrect NIC Driver for this card.
D. There is a MAC address conflict on the network.
Correct Answer: B

200-105 practice test QUESTION 38
Refer to the Exhibit.
200-105 Practice Test
An administrator has configured network connectivity for a new virtual machine, as shown in the Exhibit.
What will occur with the network traffic of this virtual machine when communicating externally from vSwitch1?
A. The virtual machine will communicate on both uplinks
B. The virtual machine will only communicate on vmnic1
C. The virtual machine will only communicate on vmnic2
D. The virtual machine will fail to communicate externally
Correct Answer: D

200-105 practice test QUESTION 39
A developer needs to create a multi-tier development stack for a home lab. Which vSphere product will support the architecture required for the least software
cost?
A. vSphere Hypervisor
B. vSphere Essentials
C. VMware Player
D. VMware Workstation
Correct Answer: A

200-105 practice test QUESTION 40
Immediately after installing ESXi, an administrator observes that the Configure Lockdown Mode option is grayed out in the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI).
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The host has not yet been added to a vCenter Server.
B. The BIOS on the host does not have NX/XD enabled.
C. The ESXi host is running in evaluation mode.
D. The host requires a reboot before this feature is available.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest 300-085 Practice Exam With Valid PDF

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300-085 practice exam

Latest 300-085 practice exam questions and answers (15Q&As)

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 1
Which benefit of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is true?
A. predicable and consistent processes
B. increased transparency of accountability and informed delegation of authority
C. obtain ISO 9001 compliance
D. value creation through monitoring, measuring, evaluation, and feedback
Correct Answer: D

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 2
Who is responsible for leading a business architecture engagement with the customer?
A. Sales leadership
B. Services team
C. Account team (account manager, engineer)
D. Business architect
Correct Answer: D

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 3
Which tool is leveraged by Cisco business architects for describing, visualizing, assessing, and changing
business models?
A. business model visualization
B. business model framework
C. business model canvas
D. business model agenda
Correct Answer: C

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 4
You are proposing a solution to a group that conflicts with a competing intiative of one of the group
members.
Which audience type does this group member belong to?
A. Critical
B. Hostile
C. Uninformed
D. Sympathetic
Correct Answer: A

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 5
Which value does a customer realize from the Cisco Business Architecture approach?
A. Capture and realize business value from product feature demonstrations.
B. Ensures Cisco relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions.
C. Capture and realize business value from defined business outcomes.
D. Ensures that the customer is up to date with all the latest product capabilities.
Correct Answer: B

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 6
Which purpose is the business architecture domain used for tithing the open group architecture
framework?A. To describe the logical software and hardware capabilities to support the deployment of business
services.
B. To describe the business strategy, governance, organization, and business processes.
C. To identify stakeholders, create the architecture vision, and obtain initial approvals.
D. To create the blueprint for the application system to be deployed to the core business processes.
Correct Answer: A

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 7
Which two skill pillars are part of Cisco Business Architecture?
A. Stakeholder architecture
B. Digitization
C. Enterprise architecture
D. Business engagement
E. Business acumen
Correct Answer: CE

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 8
You are an account manager and your customer asks whether Cisco can become a strategic partner to
assist solving the business problems your customer is facing. Which two description best describes the
value of the Cisco Business Architecture Methodology? (Choose two.)
A. clearly illustrate product outcomes via a technology roadmap aligned to high level business outcomes
B. ensure that business capabilities and solutions are aligned with business priorities and long-term
strategy
C. captures and realizes value from defined business outcomes
D. ensures that product outcomes are aligned to business drivers
E. ensure that business capabilities are identified in product briefing sessions, clearly highlighting the
outcomes the product benefits deliver
Correct Answer: AC

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 9
Which two options are characteristics of communities leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It involves of high level of communities.
B. A trained and qualifies team lead efforts.
C. The leader provides reward and incentives
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: BE

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 11
Which phase of the Cisco Business Architecture aligns to the Business Architecture domain of the open
group architecture framework?
A. Customer commit
B. Deploy and measure
C. Research and analyze
D. Develop and verify
E. Customer knowledge
Correct Answer: E

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 12
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint is the perspective of an individual user.
B. A view can be generic and stored in libraries for later reuse.
C. Some views do not have associated viewpoints.
D. A view is perspective of an individual user.
Correct Answer: A

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 13
Which two options are characteristics of autocratic leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
B. The leader and team members set goals.
C. The leader motivates team members through visibility.
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: AD

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 14
Which goal of the business architect in a business architecture engagement is true?
A. Lead post-sales technical support.
B. Provide Cisco specific technology solutions.
C. Become a trusted advisor to the customer.
D. Gain experience in developing low-level designs.
Correct Answer: C

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 15
Which value of enterprise architecture frameworks is true?
A. They describe the arrangement of products to deliver a business outcome.
B. They describe how business outcomes are defined.
C. They provide an overall view of a given problem.
D. They outline how business priorities are reached.
Correct Answer: A

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