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400-101 PDF

Latest 400-101 PDF questions and answers (14Q&As)

Which of the following scheduling options can you select in transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) to
define the start condition of a background job in an SAP system based on AS ABAP? (Choose three)
A. When a specified alert condition is met (Alert)
B. At a particular time (Date / Time)
C. When a specified job finished (After job)
D. When a particular event occurs (After event)
E. Each time a specific periodic job finished (After periodic job)
400-101 exam Correct Answer: BCD

Which of the following does not use SAP NetWeaver?
B. SAP Business All-In-One
D. SAP Business One
Correct Answer: D

You have established a backup strategy using complete offline backups.
In addition to all data files, which files are saved by BRBACKUP? (Choose two)
A. Oracle executable files
B. Online redo log files
C. The control file
D. SQL*Net configuration files
E. Offline redo log files
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: BC

Which AS ABAP release for software component “SAP BASIS” is used for SAP ECC 6.05?
A. 7.20
B. 7.02
C. 7.01
D. 7.10
Correct Answer: B

You are running a system landscape of AS Java-based SAP systems. You want to use the enhanced
Change and Transport System (CTS) to transport non-ABAP objects into these systems.
Which prerequisites are necessary to perform this task? (Choose two)
A. The Software Deployment Manager (SDM) of the Transport Domain Controller must be configured for deployment in AS Java-based runtime systems.
B. Client-dependent transport routes must exist for all SAP systems in your transport domain.
C. The transport landscape for AS Java-based SAP systems must be maintained in transaction STMS in the Transport Domain Controller.
D. The AS Java-based SAP systems and the Transport Domain Controller must have the same SAP release level.
E. An RFC destination to the CTS Deploy Web Service must be configured on the AS ABAP-based Transport Domain Controller.
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: CE

Which of the following statements are true with regard to SAP online help for an AS ABAP-based SAP
system? (Choose three)
A. When installing the online documentation, you have the option to choose between Standard HTML (PlainHtml) and Compiled HTML (HtmlHelp).
B. The online documentation can be installed in the database of the SAP system.
C. The online documentation can be installed on a file or Web server.
D. The online documentation is installed with all available languages by default.
E. Access to the online documentation can be configured with transaction SR13 (Administration:
Display of the SAP Library).
Correct Answer: ACE

You are running a landscape of AS ABAP-based SAP systems. What can be copied using client copy
tools? (Choose three)
A. Application data without client-specific Customizing
B. User master records
C. Customer-specific repository objects
D. Cross-client Customizing for remote client copy
E. Client-specific Customizing without application data
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: BDE

Which of the following is an attribute of an output device definition in an AS ABAP-based SAP system?
A. The local Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
B. A specific spool work process
C. Logon client
D. Either a logical or a physical spool server
Correct Answer: D

Which of the following are consequences of a work process reservation for class “A” jobs? (Choose two)
A. A dedicated background work process is reserved for class “A” jobs.
B. Class “A” jobs are started with a higher probability at their planned start time.
C. Class “B” and class “C” jobs can encounter delays.
D. When all background work processes of an SAP system are reserved for class “A” jobs, jobs of classes “B” and “C” will be automatically promoted to class “A”.
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: BC

How can you determine the current store location for TemSe spool objects?
A. Check the table space PSAPSPOOL in the database.
B. Check the environment variable DIR_SAPSPOOL.
C. Check the value of the system parameter rspo/store_location.
D. Check the value of the SAP Spooler Vault parameter.
Correct Answer: C

Which of the following prerequisites must be fulfilled to establish BAPI communication between SAP
systems in an SAP landscape?
A. RFC connections must be defined.
B. A BAPI layer in the protocol stack of the operating system must be available.
C. The BAPI flag of the RFC layer must be activated.
D. A central LDAP directory server must be available.
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: A

You want to apply ABAP Support Packages using transaction SPAM (Support Package Manager).
What do you need to consider? (Choose two)
A. Individual Support Packages exist for different ABAP software components.
B. It is sufficient to apply only the latest Support Package available per ABAP software component.
C. Before you apply Support Packages, it may be necessary to apply a SPAM/SAINT update.
D. You must apply the Support Packages for each client individually.
E. While applying SAP_BASIS Support Packages, a system restart is necessary due to the kernel update.
Correct Answer: AC

Which of the following statements regarding the architecture of SAP NetWeaver AS are correct? (Choose two)
A. The central services instance of the AS Java is required only for an AS Java installation, and not for an AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) installation.
B. SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems use either AS ABAP, AS Java, or AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack).
C. All SAP NetWeaver-based SAP systems can be installed as AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack) systems.
D. With AS ABAP+Java (Dual Stack), the AS Java and AS ABAP use different database schemas.
400-101 PDF Correct Answer: BD

Which of the following activities can be carried out using the Web administration interface of the SAP Web
A. Upgrade the SAP Web Dispatcher.
B. Connect the SAP Web Dispatcher to a directory server.
C. Install the SAP Web Dispatcher.
D. Display parameter settings for the SAP Web Dispatcher.
Correct Answer: D

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300-080 Exam Dumps

Latest Cisco 300-080 exam dumps questions and answers (10Q&As)

Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
300-080 exam Correct Answer: AC

Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
300-080 vce Correct Answer: A

A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
300-080 exam Correct Answer: C

A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

What is the most efficient development tool to use for rapid deployment of formatted reports without requiring coding?
A. Essbase Objects application
B. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files
C. Essbase Web Gateway deployed over their Intranet
D. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files and Extended Spreadsheet Macros
300-080 dumps Answer: B

Given the Input data and the Outline in the exhibits, if Product and Market are sparse, which is an input level data block?
A. East->Root Beer
B. New York->Colas
C. New York->Diet Cola
D. New York->Root Beer
Answer: ABD

Given that Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, which file(s) would be restructured if a new member were added to the Product dimension?
A. none
B. data files only
C. index files only
D. both index and data files
210-060 pdf Answer: C

Given the Outline in the exhibit, if Incremental Restructuring is enabled and Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, what is the incremental restructuring implication if the Product dimension is moved after the Market dimension?
A. none
B. restructure deferred
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures data files only
D. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures index files only
E. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files
300-080 dumps Answer: D

If the average block density is between 10% and 90% and there are few consecutive repeating values or zeros, which data compression type is recommended?
B. Bit-Map
C. No Compression
300-080 vce Answer: B

When would disabling data compression be recommended?
A. when the average block density is very low (<3%). B. when the average block density is very high (>95%) and few consecutive repeating values exist.
C. when the database contains many consecutive zero values or other consecutive repeating values.
Answer: B

In the Outline in the exhibit, Year and Measures are dense dimensions. Data is loaded for every Month, Measure, Market and Scenario. After a CALC ALL is run, how many blocks are there?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
300-080 exam Answer: A

During calculation, what is the calculator cache used for?
A. for storing blocks
B. for tracking index page usage
C. for storing dynamically calculated values
D. for tracking calculation progress through the blocks
Answer: D

The BeginArchive and EndArchive commands are used for which procedure?
A. Exporting only a partial area of a database.
B. Backing up Essbase files while Essbase is still running.
C. Backing up Essbase files after Essbase has been shut down.
D. Shutting down Essbase and making a complete backup of the current database.
300-080 dumps Answer: B

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Cisco 300-075 Exam

Latest Cisco 300-075 exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

Which two statements comparing ECC and RSA are true? (Choose two.)
A. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size.
B. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA.
C. Key generation in ECC is slower and less CPU intensive.
D. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size.
E. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU intensive.
Correct Answer: AE
300-075 Exam

An administrator desires that when work laptops are not connected to the corporate network, they should automatically initiate an AnyConnect VPN tunnel back to headquarters. Where does the administrator configure this?
A. Via the svc trusted-network command under the group-policy sub-configuration mode on the ASA
B. Under the andquot;Automatic VPN Policyandquot; section inside the Anyconnect Profile Editor within ASDM
C. Under the TNDPolicy XML section within the Local Preferences file on the client computer
D. Via the svc trusted-network command under the global webvpn sub-configuration mode on the ASA
Correct Answer: C
300-075 Exam

Which command simplifies the task of converting an SSL VPN to an IKEv2 VPN on a Cisco ASA appliance that has an invalid IKEv2 configuration?
A. migrate remote-access ssl overwrite
B. migrate remote-access ikev2
C. migrate l2l
D. migrate remote-access ssl
Correct Answer: A
300-075 Exam

Which three types of web resources or protocols are enabled by default on the Cisco ASA Clientless SSL VPN portal? (Choose three.)
F. ICA (Citrix)
Correct Answer: ACE
300-075 Exam

Which functionality is provided by L2TPv3 over FlexVPN?
A. the extension of a Layer 2 domain across the FlexVPN
B. the extension of a Layer 3 domain across the FlexVPN
C. secure communication between servers on the FlexVPN
D. a secure backdoor for remote access users through the FlexVPN
Correct Answer: A
300-075 Exam

When initiating a new SSL or TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. After validating
the server certificate, what does the client use the certificate for?
A. The client and server use the server public key to encrypt the SSL session data.
B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client decrypts the session key by using the
server public key.
C. The client and server switch to a DH key exchange to establish a session key.
D. The client generates a random session key, encrypts it with the server public key, and then sends it to the server.
Correct Answer: D
300-075 Exam

Which two changes must be made to migrate from DMVPN Phase 2 to Phase 3 when EIGRP is configured? (Choose two )
A. Disable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
B. Enable EIGRP next-hop-self on the hub.
C. Acid NHRP shortcuts on the hub.
D. Add NHRP redirects on the hub.
E. Add NHRP redirects on the spoke.
Correct Answer: BD
300-075 Exam

When an IPsec SVTI is configured, which technology processes traffic forwarding for encryption?
B. IP routing
D. front door VPN routing and forwarding
Correct Answer: B
300-075 Exam

Which three parameters are specified in the isakmp (IKEv1) policy? (Choose three.)
A. the hashing algorithm
B. the authentication method
C. the lifetime
D. the session key
E. the transform-set
F. the peer
Correct Answer: ABC
300-075 Exam

Authorization of a clientless SSL VPN defines the actions that a user may perform within a clientless SSL VPN session.
Which statement is correct concerning the SSL VPN authorization process?
A. Remote clients can be authorized by applying a dynamic access policy, which is configured on an external AAA server.
B. Remote clients can be authorized externally by applying group parameters from an external database.
C. Remote client authorization is supported by RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols.
D. To configure external authorization, you must configure the Cisco ASA for cut-through proxy.
Correct Answer: B
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Cisco 300-320 Study Guide

Latest 300-320 study guide questions and answers (15Q&As)

Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
Correct Answer: B

What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
C. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include? Accurate
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Correct Answer: ABC

Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
Correct Answer: AB

You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

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200-105 Practice Test

Latest 200-105 practice test questions and answers (10Q&As)

200-105 practice test QUESTION 31
Users of an application are reporting performance issues. The following performance values are observed in the vSphere Web Client:
Host CPU utilization is 90%
Virtual Machine memory utilization is consistently greater than 90%
CPU Ready values are higher than 20%
What could be the cause of the application performance issue?
A. The host is lacking the CPU resources required to meet the demand.
B. The host is lacking the memory resources required to meet the demand.
C. The virtual machine is lacking the CPU resources required to meet the demand.
D. The virtual machine is lacking the memory resources required to meet the demand.
Correct Answer: A

200-105 practice test QUESTION 32
An administrator receives a report that no real time statistics are available for a virtual machine in the vCenter Server inventory.
Which two statements indicate likely causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine is powered off.
B. The host containing the virtual machine is disconnected from vCenter Server.
C. There is insufficient real time data to display the information.
D. The vCenter Server service is not running.
Correct Answer: AB

200-105 practice test QUESTION 33
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets two conditions:
high virtual CPU
high active memory consumption
The alarm is malfunctioning and triggering when either condition is met instead of both.
What can be done to correct the issue?
A. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
B. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
C. Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory.
D. Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm.
Correct Answer: A

200-105 practice test QUESTION 34
Which two are true about the Risk badge in vRealize Operations? (Choose two.)
A. The Risk badge indicates potential future problems that may degrade the performance of the system.
B. Risks may require attention in the near future.
C. The Risk badge indicates problems that are degrading performance of the system.
D. Risks require attention now to correct system performance problems.
Correct Answer: AB

200-105 practice test QUESTION 35
Which two badges are major badges in vRealize Operations? (Choose two.)
A. Risk
B. Efficency
C. Workload
D. Faults
Correct Answer: AB

200-105 practice test QUESTION 36
A user wants to monitor a business-critical virtual machine to ensure that it doesn’t run out of resources.
What metric could be monitored in vRealize Operations to address this concern?
A. Time Remaining badge
B. Compliance badge
C. Reclaimable Waste badge
D. Density badge
Correct Answer: A

200-105 practice test QUESTION 37
Refer to the Exhibit.
200-105 Practice Test
An administrator is configuring an ESXi 6.x host to use multiple NICs to resolve a management network redundancy error. After configuring a second NIC, the
server is not able to communicate when the primary connection is taken down. The administrator analyzes the Exhibit shown here.
Based on the exhibit, what is the likely cause of the issue?
A. vmnic4 is not attached to a vSwitch.
B. vmnic2 is not connected to a physical switch.
C. E1000 is the incorrect NIC Driver for this card.
D. There is a MAC address conflict on the network.
Correct Answer: B

200-105 practice test QUESTION 38
Refer to the Exhibit.
200-105 Practice Test
An administrator has configured network connectivity for a new virtual machine, as shown in the Exhibit.
What will occur with the network traffic of this virtual machine when communicating externally from vSwitch1?
A. The virtual machine will communicate on both uplinks
B. The virtual machine will only communicate on vmnic1
C. The virtual machine will only communicate on vmnic2
D. The virtual machine will fail to communicate externally
Correct Answer: D

200-105 practice test QUESTION 39
A developer needs to create a multi-tier development stack for a home lab. Which vSphere product will support the architecture required for the least software
A. vSphere Hypervisor
B. vSphere Essentials
C. VMware Player
D. VMware Workstation
Correct Answer: A

200-105 practice test QUESTION 40
Immediately after installing ESXi, an administrator observes that the Configure Lockdown Mode option is grayed out in the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI).
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The host has not yet been added to a vCenter Server.
B. The BIOS on the host does not have NX/XD enabled.
C. The ESXi host is running in evaluation mode.
D. The host requires a reboot before this feature is available.
Correct Answer: A

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300-085 practice exam

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300-085 practice exam QUESTION 1
Which benefit of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is true?
A. predicable and consistent processes
B. increased transparency of accountability and informed delegation of authority
C. obtain ISO 9001 compliance
D. value creation through monitoring, measuring, evaluation, and feedback
Correct Answer: D

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 2
Who is responsible for leading a business architecture engagement with the customer?
A. Sales leadership
B. Services team
C. Account team (account manager, engineer)
D. Business architect
Correct Answer: D

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 3
Which tool is leveraged by Cisco business architects for describing, visualizing, assessing, and changing
business models?
A. business model visualization
B. business model framework
C. business model canvas
D. business model agenda
Correct Answer: C

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 4
You are proposing a solution to a group that conflicts with a competing intiative of one of the group
Which audience type does this group member belong to?
A. Critical
B. Hostile
C. Uninformed
D. Sympathetic
Correct Answer: A

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 5
Which value does a customer realize from the Cisco Business Architecture approach?
A. Capture and realize business value from product feature demonstrations.
B. Ensures Cisco relevancy to business capabilities and business solutions.
C. Capture and realize business value from defined business outcomes.
D. Ensures that the customer is up to date with all the latest product capabilities.
Correct Answer: B

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 6
Which purpose is the business architecture domain used for tithing the open group architecture
framework?A. To describe the logical software and hardware capabilities to support the deployment of business
B. To describe the business strategy, governance, organization, and business processes.
C. To identify stakeholders, create the architecture vision, and obtain initial approvals.
D. To create the blueprint for the application system to be deployed to the core business processes.
Correct Answer: A

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 7
Which two skill pillars are part of Cisco Business Architecture?
A. Stakeholder architecture
B. Digitization
C. Enterprise architecture
D. Business engagement
E. Business acumen
Correct Answer: CE

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 8
You are an account manager and your customer asks whether Cisco can become a strategic partner to
assist solving the business problems your customer is facing. Which two description best describes the
value of the Cisco Business Architecture Methodology? (Choose two.)
A. clearly illustrate product outcomes via a technology roadmap aligned to high level business outcomes
B. ensure that business capabilities and solutions are aligned with business priorities and long-term
C. captures and realizes value from defined business outcomes
D. ensures that product outcomes are aligned to business drivers
E. ensure that business capabilities are identified in product briefing sessions, clearly highlighting the
outcomes the product benefits deliver
Correct Answer: AC

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 9
Which two options are characteristics of communities leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It involves of high level of communities.
B. A trained and qualifies team lead efforts.
C. The leader provides reward and incentives
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: BE

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 11
Which phase of the Cisco Business Architecture aligns to the Business Architecture domain of the open
group architecture framework?
A. Customer commit
B. Deploy and measure
C. Research and analyze
D. Develop and verify
E. Customer knowledge
Correct Answer: E

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 12
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint is the perspective of an individual user.
B. A view can be generic and stored in libraries for later reuse.
C. Some views do not have associated viewpoints.
D. A view is perspective of an individual user.
Correct Answer: A

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 13
Which two options are characteristics of autocratic leadership styles? (Choose two.)
A. It is intended for team members who require close supervision.
B. The leader and team members set goals.
C. The leader motivates team members through visibility.
D. The leader makes unilateral decisions.
E. The leader has minimal involvement.
Correct Answer: AD

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 14
Which goal of the business architect in a business architecture engagement is true?
A. Lead post-sales technical support.
B. Provide Cisco specific technology solutions.
C. Become a trusted advisor to the customer.
D. Gain experience in developing low-level designs.
Correct Answer: C

300-085 practice exam QUESTION 15
Which value of enterprise architecture frameworks is true?
A. They describe the arrangement of products to deliver a business outcome.
B. They describe how business outcomes are defined.
C. They provide an overall view of a given problem.
D. They outline how business priorities are reached.
Correct Answer: A

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Examprepwell provides an exam profile for the Cisco 300-208 exam for the CCENT and CCNA certifications. Pearson IT Certification provides a variety of exam preparation tools to help our customers in their quest for certification. As part of our service to you, we have developed this 300-208 pdf Exam Profile series. Each profile is developed based on the testing experience of one of our trainers or authors. Of course you will not receive exact questions or answers, but you will get a real feel for the exam. Each profile describes question forms, trouble spots, hints for exam preparation, and recommendations for 300-208 dumps additional study resources. Find out here what you can expect to see on the exam, and how you can better prepare for it.

Latest Cisco 300-208 practice exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 1
In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Correct Answer: C

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 2
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
300-208 Dumps Exam
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path?
A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers.
B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area.
C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA.
D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 Dumps Exam
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 4
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: D

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
300-208 Dumps Exam
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1.
B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1.
C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router.
D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance.
E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6.
F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 6
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-ISC. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 7
Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
300-208 Dumps Exam
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4
only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made?
A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks.
B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering.
C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS.
D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family.
E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode.
Correct Answer: C

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 8
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 9
The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose?
A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack
B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
D. To indicate the status of the LSP
Correct Answer: A

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 10
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 11
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 12
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 13
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
Correct Answer: B

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 14
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
Correct Answer: C

300-208 Dumps Exam QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

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100% Free Cisco 300-070 Exam Questions With Answers

I’ve recently been on a 1 day training course covering the Cisco 300-070 exam questions– Application Delivery Fundamentals exam (blueprint here), and thought I would share my study notes. I’m taking the multiple choice exam this week, so hopefully the process of going through the study guide, and summarising everything will have given me enough knowledge to pass! After passing the Cisco 300-070 exam, I will be going on to study for the 300-070 exam, which I have been told requires quite a bit more effort. I plan to upload my study notes for the Cisco 300-070 exam dumps as well when they are complete. ese notes are mostly structured around the objectives in the blueprint document, and the content/exam is based on Cisco.Here’s a quick glossary of Cisco terminology, in case you’re missing some of it.

Latest Cisco 300-070 exam questions and answers (9Q&As)

300-070 exam Topic 1, Network Principles

Refer to the exhibit
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What
is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
Answer: D
Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded
to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.

300-070 exam Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of
the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick
succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers
of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the
Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown
as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of
receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts
coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a
sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits
per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You
can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a single
lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e.
single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

1300-070 exam Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the extended ping command field on the left to its usage on the right.
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
300-070 exam Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to
Answer: A
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in
hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

300-070 exam Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
Cisco 300-070 exam questions
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
Answer: A
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for
reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not
need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do
with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have
a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

300-070 exam Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its
interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type
codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically
through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given
time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs
and their payload type values can be found at the link below:

300-070 exam Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables
relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table),
which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken
up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

300-070 exam Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:
“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo
header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero
octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”
In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the
16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and
add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the
value of the UDP checksum field.
If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the
one’s complement (all 1s).

300-070 exam Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Answer: A,B
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are
needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated
based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB)
is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

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Latest Cisco 210-260 exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

Inline editing updates the field when
A. The field is saved/updated
B. When the record is saved/updated
C. When the return key is pressed
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B

If a company opts to use Custom Fiscal Years, they cannot use the standard forecasting option.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

Which of the following are not standard objects?
A. Opportunities
B. Solutions
C. Job Applicants
D. Accounts
E. Campaigns
Correct Answer: C

Which of the following are part of the Service Cloud offering?
A. Opportunities
B. Knowledge
C. Entitlements
D. Campaigns
E. Quotes
Correct Answer: BC

A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

If the company locale is set to US English, all users will have a default locale of US English and this cannot
be changed.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

If your company’s fiscal year follows the Gregorian calendar, you must use Custom Fiscal Years.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

In order to enable multi-currency feature in Salesforce, you must
A. Contact Salesforce.com
B. Check the Enable Multi-currency checkbox in your Chatter profile
C. Operate your business in at least two different countries
D. You cannot enable this feature once you’ve implemented Salesforce.
Correct Answer: A

Which feature effectively allows you to “lock” the converted amount on closed opportunities?
A. Locale
B. Company Profile
C. Multi-currency
D. Advanced Currency Management
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D

User interface settings are global settings and apply to all users of an org.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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Latest 300-080 dumps exam questions and answers (8Q&As)

Which of the following best describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. It is a detailed data model that can be tailored to specific industries
B. It is an example of a Common Systems Architecture
C. It is a fundamental architecture upon which more specific architectures can be based
D. It is a model of application components and application services software, including brokering
Correct Answer: C

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?
A. Part I, the Enterprise Continuum, describes a model for structuring a virtual repository
B. Part II, the Architecture Development Method, describes the definitions of terms used in TOGAF, and
the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III, Tools and Support, describes a collection of guidelines and techniques used in the other parts
D. Part VI, TOGAF Reference Models, includes a model for release management of the TOGAF
E. Part VII, the Architecture Capability Framework, describes processes and skills to establish an
enterprise function
Correct Answer: E

Which of the following describes the Architecture Vision document?
A. A description of individual change increments showing progression from the baseline to target
B. A detailed schedule for implementation of the target architecture
C. A high level description of the baseline and target architectures
D. A joint agreement between the development team and sponsor on the deliverables and quality of an
E. A set of rules and guidelines to support fulfilling the mission of the organization
Correct Answer: C
OG0-093 Exam

What document is sent from the sponsoring organization to the architecture organization to trigger the start
of an ADM cycle?
A. Architecture Contract
B. Architecture Definition Document
C. Architecture Vision
D. Request for Architecture Work
E. Statement of Architecture Work
Correct Answer: D

According to TOGAF, which of the following best describes Architecture Governance?
A. A categorization mechanism for architecture and solution artifacts
B. A framework for operational and change activity
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of a set of building blocks
D. The lifecycle management of information and related technology used by an organization
E. The practice by which enterprise architectures are controlled at an enterprise-wide level
Correct Answer: E

Which component within the Architecture Repository holds best practice or template materials that can be
used to construct architectures?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: E

Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all the following are responsibilities of an Architecture
Board, except .
A. Allocating resources for architecture projects
B. Decision making for changes in the architecture
C. Enforcing Architecture Compliance
D. Improving the maturity of the organization’s architecture discipline
E. Production of governance materials
Correct Answer: A

According to TOGAF, which of the following best describes the purpose of a Compliance Assessment?
A. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
B. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
C. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
D. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture
Correct Answer: B

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